Is it an adverb? Is it a conjunction?

Or is it an enormous pain in the arse?

There are only two parts to the grammar in Unit 22 [of TY Ancient Greek] and one of them is about ὡς. I wrote that out in my notebook, not verbatim, but just the details and the examples. That took up seven pages and I’m still none the wiser when it comes to spotting some of the less obvious functions of this pesky little word.

The other part of the grammar was various other functions of the accusative, which means verbs taking two accusatives and cognate accusatives.

The prize for most puzzling sentence in the reading has to go to δίδου πένησιν ὡς λάβῃς θεὸν δότην. The first part is simple enough: “Give to the poor”. Since the verb is subjunctive and there’s no sign of ἄν, it would appear that ὡς is introducing a purpose clause. The verb seems to be taking some sort of double accusative, but I didn’t know that λαμβάνω “take; receive” could do that, LSJ has

6. c. dupl. acc., take as, λαβὼν πρόβλημα σαυτοῦ παῖδα τόνδ’ Id.Ph.1007; ξυμπαραστάτην λ. τινά ib.675; τοὺς Ἕλληνας λ. συναγωνιζομένους Isoc.5.86.

But where does that leave the sentence in question? “Give to the poor to take the giver as a god”? That doesn’t make much sense and reversing the order of the two accusatives makes even less sense. I admit defeat. The book has, “Give to the poor in order that you find god a giver”. Er, all right. λαμβάνω can mean “find”, but in the sense “come upon”.

Another sentence which could do with some additional explanation.

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